2014年GRE考试精选练习题(第四套)-外语试题-考试试题大全

SECTION 1

Time –30 minutes

18 Questions

1. While many Russian composers of the　nineteenth century contributed to an emerging　national style, other composers did not----　idiomatic Russian musical elements, ---- instead　the traditional musical vocabulary of Western　European Romanticism.

(A) utilize ..rejecting

(B) incorporate.. preferring

(D) repudiate.. expanding

(E) esteem.. disdaining

2. Because the painter Albert Pinkham Ryder was　obsessed with his ----perfection, he was rarely　----a painting, creating endless variations of a　scene on one canvas, one on top of another.

(A) quest for.. satisfied with

(B) insistence on .. displeased with

(D) alienation from.. immersed in

(E) need for.. concerned with

3. Objectively set standards can serve as a ----for　physicians, providing them ----unjustified　malpractice claims.

(A) trial.. evidence of

(B) model.. experience with

(D) test.. questions about

(E) safeguard.. protection from

4. In spite of ----reviews in the press, the　production of her play was ----almost certain　oblivion by enthusiastic audiences whose　acumen was greater than that of the critics.

(A) lukewarm.. condemned to

(B) scathing.. exposed to

(D) sensitive.. reduced to

(E) admiring.. insured against

5. The passions of love and pride are often found　in the same individual, but having little in　common, they mutually ----, not to say destroy,　each other.

(A) reinforce

(B) annihilate

(D) weaken

(E) embrace

6. The necessity of establishing discrete categories　for observations frequently leads to attempts to　make absolute ----when there are in reality　only----.

(A) analyses.. hypotheses

(B) correlations.. digressions

(D) complications.. ambiguities

(E) conjectures.. approximations

7. A unique clay disk found at the Minoan site of　Phaistos is often ----as the earliest example of　printing by scholars who have defended its claim　to this status despite equivalent claims put　forward for other printing artifacts.

(A) questioned

(B) overlooked

(D) conceded

(E) dismissed

8. EXEMPT: LIABILITY::

(A) flout: authority

(B) bestow: reward

(D) restrain: disorder

(E) pardon: penalty

9. FULL-BODIED: FLAVOR::

(A) penetrating: vision

(B) humorous: character

(D) nostalgic: feeling

(E) resonant: sound

10. LEGACY: PREDECESSOR::

(A) gift: donor

(B) gratuity: service

(D) receipt: customer

(E) loan: collector

11. HERO: ADMIRABLE::

(A) critic: capricious

(B) braggart: surly

(D) anarchist: powerful

(E) enemy: immoral

12. GALVANIZE: STIMULATE::

(A) agitate: occlude

(B) incubate: humidify

(D) irrigate: flush

(E) purify: amalgamate

13. MANIFEST: PERCEIVE::

(A) porous: tear

(B) renovated: improve

(D) brittle: break

(E) elite: qualify

14. LOOSE: CONFINEMENT::

(A) forgive: injury

(B) promulgate: rule

(D) redress: allegation

(E) disengage: independence

15. BLANDISHMENT: COAX::

(A) prevarication: deceive

(B) reverie: dream

(D) enticement: impoverish

(E) explanation: mislead

16. CONVULSION: CONTRACTION::

(A) aggression: attack

(B) sulkiness: punishment

(D) frenzy: emotion

(E) indifference: greeting

Much of the research on hallucinogenic drugs such　as LSD has focused on the neurotransmitter serotonin,　a chemical that when released from a presynaptic　serotonin-secreting neuron causes the transmission of　(5) a nerve impulse across a synapse to an adjacent　postsynaptic, or target, neuron. There are two major　reasons for this emphasis. First, it was discovered　early on that many of the major hallucinogens have a　molecular structure similar to that of serotonin. In　(10) addition, animal studies of brain neurochemistry　following administration of hallucinogens invariably　reported changes in serotonin levels.　Early investigators correctly reasoned that the　structural similarity to the serotonin molecule might　(15) imply that LSD’s effects are brought about by an　action on the neurotransmission of serotonin in the　brain. Unfortunately, the level of technical expertise　in the field of brain research was such that this　hypothesis had to be tested on peripheral tissue　(20) (tissue outside the brain). Two different groups of　scientists reported that LSD powerfully blockaded　serotonin’s action. Their conclusions were quickly　challenged, however. We now know that the action　of a drug at one site in the body does not necessarily　(25) correspond to the drug’s action at another site,　especially when one site is in the brain and the other　is not.

By the 1960’s, technical advances permitted the　direct testing of the hypothesis that LSD and related　(30) hallucinogens act by directly suppressing the activity　of serotonin-secreting neurons themselves—the so-　called presynaptic hypothesis. Researchers reasoned　that if the hllucinogenic drugs act by suppressing the　activity of serotonin-secreting neurons, then drugs　(35) administered after these neurons had been destroyed　should have no effect on behavior, because the　system would already be maximally suppressed.　Contrary to their expectations, neuron destruction　enhanced the effect of LSD and related hallucinogens　(40) on behavior. Thus, hallucinogenic drugs apparently　do not act directly on serotonin-secreting neurons.

However, these and other available data do support　an alternative hypothesis, that LSD and related drugs　act directly at receptor sites on serotonin target　(45) neurons (the postsynaptic hypothesis). The fact that　LSD elicits “serotonin syndrome” —that is, causes　the same kinds of behaviors as does the adminis-　tration of serotonin—in animals whose brains are　depleted of serotonin indicates that LSD acts directly　(50)on serotonin receptors, rather than indirectly through　the release of stores of serotonin. The enhanced effect　of LSD reported after serotonin depletion could be　due to a proliferation of serotonin receptor sites on　serotonin target neurons. This phenomenon often　(55) follows neuron destruction or neurotransmitter　depletion; the increase in the number of receptor sites　appears to be a compensatory response to decreased　input. Significantly, this hypothesis is supported by　data from a number of different laboratories.

17. According to the passage, which of the　following is one of the primary factors that led　researchers studying hallucinogenic drugs to　focus on serotonin?

(A) The suppression of the activity of serotonin-　secreting neurons by the administration of　hallucinogens

(B) The observed similarities in the chemical　structures of serotonin and hallucinogens

(D) Serotonin-induced changes in the effects of　hallucinogens on behavior

(E) Hallucinogen-induced changes in the effects　of serotonin on behavior

18. It can be inferred that researchers abandoned the　presynaptic hypothesis because

(A) a new and more attractive hypothesis was　suggested

(B) no research was reported that supported the　hypothesis

(D) the hypothesis was supported only by　studies of animals and not by studies of　human beings

(E) the level of technical expertise in the field of　brain research did not permit adequate　testing of the hypothesis

19. Which of the following best expresses the main　idea of the passage?

(A) Research has suggested that the　neurotransmitter serotonin is responsible for　the effects of hallucinogenic drogs on the　brain and on behavior.

(B) Researchers have spent an inadequate amount　of time developing theories concerning the way　in which the effects of hallucinogenic drugs occur.

(C) Research results strongly suggest that　hallucinogenic drugs create their effects by　acting on the serotonin receptor sites located　on target neurons in the brain.

(D) Researchers have recently made valuable　discoveries concerning the effects of　depleting the amount of serotonin in the　brain.

(E) Researchers have concluded that hallucinogenic　drugs suppress the activity of serotonin-secreting　neurons.

20. The research described in the passage is　primarily concerned with answering which on　the following questions?

(A) How can researchers control the effects that　LSD has on behavior?

(B) How are animals’ reactions to LSD different　from those of human beings?

(D) What technical advances would permit　researchers to predict more accurately the　effects of LSD on behavior?

(E) What relationship does the suppression of　neuron activity have to the occurrence of“serotonin syndrome”?

21. Which of the following best defines “serotonin　syndrome” (line 46) as the term is used in the　passage?

(A) The series of behaviors, usually associated　with the administration of serotonin, that also　occurs when LSD is administered to animals　whose brains are depleted of serotonin

(B) The series of behaviors, usually associated　with the administration of LSD, that also　occurs when the amount of serotonin in the　brain is reduced

(C) The maximal suppression of neuron activity　that results from the destruction of serotoning　secreting neurons　 (D) The release of stores of serotonin fromserotonin-secreting neurons in the brain

(E) The proliferation of serotonin receptor sites　that follows depletion of serotonin supplies in　the brain

22. Which of the following best describes the　organization of the argument that the author of　the passage presents in the last two paragraphs?(A) Two approaches to testing a hypothesis are　described, and the greater merits of one　approach are indicated.　(B) The assumptions underlying two hypotheses　are outlined, and evidence for and against　each hypothesis is discussed.　(C) A phenomenon is described, and hypotheses　concerning its occurrence are considered and　rejected.　(D) The reasoning behind a hypothesis is　summarized, evidence supporting the　hypothesis is presented, and research that　counters the supporting evidence is　described.　(E) A hypothesis is discussed, evidence　undermining the hypothesis is revealed, and 　further hypothesis based on the undermining　evidence is explained

23. The author’s attitude toward early researchers’

reasoning concerning the implications of

similarities in the structures of serotonin and

LSD molecules can best be described as one of

(A) complete agreeement

(B) reluctant support

(D) irreverent dismissal

(E) strong opposition

When literary periods are defined on the basis of

men’s writing, women’s writing must be forcibly

assimilated into an irrelevant grid: a Renaissance that

is not a renaissance for women, a Romantic period in

(5) which women played very little part, a modernism

with which women conflict. Simultaneously, the

history of women’s writing has been suppressed,

leaving large, mysterious gaps in accounts of the

development of various genres. Feminist criticism is

(10) beginning to correct this situation. Margaret Anne

Doody, for example, suggests that during “the period

between the death of Richardson and the appearance

of the novels of Scott and Austen,” which has “been

regarded as a dead period.” Late-eighteenth-century

(15) women writers actually developed “the paradigm

for women’s fiction of the nineteenth century—

something hardly less than the paradigm of the

nineteenth-century novel itself.” Feminist critics have

also pointed out that the twentieth-century writer

(20) Virginia Woolf belonged to a tradition other than

modernism and that this tradition surfaces in her

work precisely where criticism has hitherto found

obscurities, evasions, implausibilities, and

imperfections.

24. It can be inferred from the passage that the

author views the division of literature into

periods based on men’s writing as an approach

that

(A) makes distinctions among literary periods

ambiguous

(B) is appropriate for evaluating only premodern

literature

feminist criticism

(D) provides a valuable basis from which

feminist criticism has evolved

(E) obscures women’s contributions to literature

25. The passage suggests which of the following

about Virginia Woolf’s work?

Ⅰ. Nonfeminist criticism of it has been flawed.

Ⅱ. Critics have treated it as part of modernism.

Ⅲ. It is based on the work of late-eighteenth-　century women writers.

(A) Ⅰonly

(B) Ⅱonly

(D) Ⅱand Ⅲ only

(E) Ⅰ, Ⅱand Ⅲ

26. The author quotes Doody most probably in order　to illustrate

(A) a contribution that feminist criticism can　make to literary criticism

(B) a modernist approach that conflicts with women’s writing

(D) the hitherto overlooked significance of Scott’s　and Austen’s novels

(E) a standard system of defining literary periods

27. The passage provides information that answers

which of the following questions?

(A) In what tradition do feminist critics usually

place Virginia Woolf?

(B) What are the main themes of women’s fiction

of the nineteenth century?

reinterpretation of literary history?

(D) How has the period between Richardson’s

death and Scott’s and Ansten’s novels

traditionally been regarded by critics?

(E) How was the development of the nineteenth-

century novel affected by women’s fiction in

the same century?

28. GROUNDED:

(A) attendant

(B) flawless

(D) aloft

(E) noteworthy

29. DISCHARGE:

(A) retreat

(B) hire

(D) circulate

(E) pause

30. INTERMITTENT:

(A) compatible

(B) constant

(D) unadulterated

(E) indispensable

31. APT:

(A) exceptionally ornate

(B) patently absurd

(D) extremely inappropriate

(E) fundamentally insensitive

32. JUSTIFY:

(A) misjudge

(B) ponder

(D) argue against

(E) select from

33. TEDIOUS:

(A) intricate

(B) straightforward

(D) entertaining

(E) prominent

34. INTEGRAL:

(A) profuse

(B) superfluous

(D) neutral

(E) displaced

35. COWED:

(A) unencumbered

(B) untired

(D) unworried

(E) undaunted

36. CONCORD:

(A) continuance

(B) severance

(D) complex relationship

(E) unrealistic hypothesis

37. FRIABLE：

(A) substantial

(B) inflexible

(D) slow to accelerate

(E) not easily crumbled

38. DERACINATE:

(A) illuminate

(B) quench

(D) polish

(E) plant

SECTION 2

Time –30 minutes

25 Questions

Questions 1-7

A developer is assigning six rectangular building lots

in an industrial park to six companies—Handicorp,

Instantype, Kleentek, Linostyle, Messagex, and

Nanoware. Each company will be assigned a dif-

ferent one of the six lots, which are arranged in two

blocks—block 700 and block 800. Each block

includes three lots, numbered consecutively lot 1

through lot 3. Within each block, lot 1 is adjacent to

lot 2 and lot 2 is adjacent to lot 3; no other lots are

adjacent to each other. In assigning lots, the develo-

per will obey the following restrictions:

Instantype’s lot cannot be in the same block as

Linostyle’s lot.

Linostyle’s lot must be adjacent to Messagex’ lot.

Messagex’ lot cannot be lot 2 of either block.

Nanoware’s lot cannot be adjacent to

Handicorp’s lot.

1. Which of the following is an acceptable

assignment of companies to block 700, listed

from lot 1 through lot 3?

(A) Instantype, Handicorp, Nanoware

(B) Instantype, Linostyle, Messagex

(D) Messagex, Linostyle, Nanoware

(E) Nanoware, Instantype, Messagex

2. If Messagex is assigned a lot in block 800, which

of the following must be assigned a lot in block

700?

(A) Handicorp

(B) Instantype

(D) Linostyle

(E) Nanoware

3. If Handicorp and Nanoware are each assigned a

lot in block 700, which of the following must be

true?

(A) Instantype is assigned lot 2 in block 700.

(B) Instantype is assigned lot 3 in block 700.

(D) Linostyle is assigned lot 3 in block 800.

(E) Messagex is assigned lot 1 in block 800.

4. If Nanoware is assigned lot 2 in block 700, which

of the following is a pair of companies that must

be assigned lots that are adjacent to each other?

(A) Handicorp and Instantype

(B) Handicorp and Messagex

(D) Kleentek and Nanoware

(E) Messagex and Nanoware

5. If Kleentek is assigned lot 2 in block 800, which

of the following can be true?

(A) Handicorp is assigned a lot that is adjacent to

the lot assigned to Instantype.

(B) Messagex is assigned a lot that is adjacent to

the lot assigned to Nanoware.

(D) Linostyle is assigned lot 1 on block 800.

(E) Messagex is assigned lot 1 on block 700.

6. If Instantype and Handicorp are assigned lots 1

and 2, respectively, in block 700, which of the

following must be true?

(A) Kleentek is assigned lot 3 on block 700.

(B) Linostyle is assigned lot 3 on block 700.

(D) Nanoware is assigned lot 3 on block 700.

(E) Nanoware is assigned lot 1 on block 800.

7. If Linostyle and Kleentek are assigned lots that

are on the same block as each other, which of the

following must be true?

(A) Handicorp is assigned lot 2 of one of the blocks.

(B) Instantype is assigned lot 2 of one of the blocks.

(D) Linostyle is assigned lot 1 of one of the blocks.

(E) Messagex is assigned lot 3 of one of the blocks.

8. Auditor from Acme Industries: Last week at

Acme Bakery, about six percent of the pastries

baked during the night shift were found to be

imperfect, but no imperfect pastries were found

among those baked during the day shift. Pastries

are inspected during the same shift in which they

are baked, so clearly the night-shift quality control

inspectors were more alert, despite their nighttime

work hours, than the dayshift quality control

inspectors.

The argument depends on the assumption that

(A) at least some imperfect pastries were baked

during the day shift at Acme Bakery last

week

(B) not all of the pastries that the night-shift

quality control inspectors judged to be

imperfect were in fact imperfect

received more training in quality control

procedures than did the day-shift quality

control inspectors

(D) in a normal week, fewer than six percent of

the pastries baked during the night shift at

Acme Bakery are found to be imperfect

(E) there are only two shifts per day at Acme

Bakery, a day shift and a night shift

9. Spiders of many species change color to match

the pigmentation of the flowers they sit on. The

insects preyed on by those spiders, unlike human

beings, possess color discrimination so acute that

they can readily see the spiders despite the

seeming camouflage. Clearly, then, it must be in

evading their own predators that the spiders’

color changes are useful to them.

Which of the following, if true, most strengthens

the argument?

(A) Among the animals that feed on color-

changing spiders are a few species of bat,

which find their prey through sound echoes.

(B) Certain animals that feed on color-changing

spiders do so only sparingly in order to keep

from ingesting harmful amounts of spider

venom.

discrimination that is more acute than that of

spiders that lack the ability to change color.

(D) Color-changing spiders spin webs that are

readily seen by the predators of those spiders.

(E) The color discrimination of certain birds that

feed on color-changing spiders is no more

acute than that of human beings.

10. Which of the following most logically completes

the argument below?

Each year every employee of SAI Corporation

must enroll in one of the two health insurance

plans offered by SAI. One plan requires a

sizable monetary contribution from employees;

the other plan is paid for entirely by SAI. Many

SAI employees enroll in the plan requiring

employee contributions. This fact does not show

that they feel that this plan’s benefits are

superior to those provided by the plan requiring

no employee contribution since----.

(A) the plan that requires an employee contribution

costs and enrolled employee significantly less

per year than do typical health insurance

plans offered by corporations other than SAI

(B) only SAI employees who have worked for

SAI for at least fifteen years are eligible to

enroll in the plan paid for entirely by SAI

offered by SAI are substantially the same

plans SAI has offered for the past ten years

(D) most of the SAI employees enrolled in the

plan paid for entirely by SAI are under 50

years old

(E) both plans offered by SAI provide benefits

not only for employees of SAI but also for

children and spouses of enrolled employees

Questions 11-17

Frank, Greg, Julia, Laura, Magda, and Nick will be

the speakers at an all-day meeting of a local

astronomy club. Each speaker will speak once, for

one hour, with no other speakers in that hour. Three

speakers will be scheduled to speak before lunch

and three will be scheduled to speak after lunch.

The following conditions must be observed in

planning the schedule for the meeting:

Greg must speak before lunch.

There must be exactly one speaker scheduled

to speak between Magda and Nick, whether

or not Magda is earlier in the order of

speakers than Nick, and whether or not lunch

intervenes between Magda’s and Nick’s

speeches.

Frank must speak either first or third.

11. Which of the following is an acceptable order of

the speakers from first to last?

1 2 3 4 5 6

(A) Frank Greg Magda Nick Julia Laura

(B) Frank Julia Greg Nick Magda Laura

(D) Julia Laura Frank Magda Greg Nick

(E) Nick Julia Greg Frank Magda Laura

12. If Julia is the first speaker, which of the

following must be the second speaker?

(A) Frank

(B) Greg

(D) Magda

(E) Nick

13. If Julia speaks fourth, the third speaker must be

either

(A) Frank or Greg

(B) Frank or Magda

(D) Laura or Nick

(E) Magda or Nick

14. If Laura speaks in the morning and Magda is

not the sixth speaker, which of the following

must be the next speaker after Magda?

(A) Frank

(B) Greg

(D) Laura

(E) Nick

15. If lunch intervenes between Magda’s and

Nick’s speeches, which of the following lists all

the speakers who can be the speaker scheduled

between Magda and Nick?

(A) Frank, Greg

(B) Greg, Julia

(D) Frank, Greg, Julia

(E) Frank, Greg, Julia, Laura

16. If Julia is scheduled to speak at some time before

Frank, in which of the following positions in the

order of speakers can Nick be scheduled to speak?

(A) First

(B) Second

(D) Fourth

(E) Fifth

17. If Laura is scheduled to be the next speaker after

Julia, how many speakers in total must be scheduled

to speak before Laura?

(A) One

(B) Two

(D) Four

(E) Five

Questions 18-22

A kennel worker must both walk and groom each of three dogs—Lucky, Muffin, and Rover. The worker is scheduling these activities into exactly six time slots—slot 1 through slot 6. During each time slot, the worker will be scheduled to perform only one activity, either walking or grooming, with only one dog. The following conditions also apply to the schedule:

Neither Lucky nor Muffin can be walked until both of them have been groomed.

Rover must be walked at some time before being groomed.

The worker cannot perform the same activity, either walking or grooming, for more than two consecutive time

slots.

18. Which of the following is an acceptable schedule for the first four time slots?

Slot 1 Slot 2 Slot 3 Slot 4

(A) Grooming Lucky Grooming Muffin Walking Lucky Grooming Rover

(B) Grooming Lucky Walking Muffin Walking Lucky Grooming Muffin

(D) Grooming Muffin Walking Rover Grooming Lucky Walking Muffin

(E) Walking Rover Grooming Muffin Groming Rover Grooming Lucky

19. The earliest time slot for which Muffin can be

scheduled for walking is slot

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6

20. If Rover is scheduled for walking in the time

slot immediately before the time slot for which

Muffin is scheduled for walking, then which

of the following must be scheduled for slot 5?

(A) Grooming Lucky

(B) Grooming Rover

(D) Walking Muffin

(E) Walking Rover

21. If Lucky is scheduled for walking in the time

slot immediately before the time slot for which

Rover is scheduled for walking, then which of

the following must be true?

(A) Grooming is scheduled for slot 3.

(B) Walking is scheduled for slot 2.

(D) Lucky is scheduled for grooming in slot 1.

(E) Muffin is scheduled for walking in slot 4.

22. If Rover is scheduled for walking in slot 1,

which of the following must be true?

(A) Grooming is scheduled for slot 5.

(B) Walking is scheduled for slot 2.

(D) Muffin is scheduled for grooming in slot 3.

(E) Rover is scheduled for grooming in slot 6.

23. V-shaped walled structures in central Asia

were used by prehistoric hunters who drove

hoofed animals into an enclosure at the point

of the V. The central Asians who built these

structures probably learned this hunting

technique from invaders from southwest Asia,

because the arrival of invaders from a region

in southwest Asia where similar structures had

long been used coincides roughly with the

building of the earliest of such structures in

central Asia.

Which of the following, if true, most strengthens

the argument?

(A) Excavations in the central Asian region do

not indicate whether invaders from

southwest Asia settled permanently in

central Asia.

(B) The V-shaped structures in central Asia

were roughly 70 meters long, whereas the

similar structures in southwest Asia were

usually over 300 meters long.

were made from earth, whereas the walls

of the structures in southwest Asia

were made of rock.

(D) The earliest examples of V-shaped walled

structures in central Asia were of an

advanced design.

(E) Some of the walled structures used for

hunting in southwest Asia were built well

after the earliest such structures were built

in central Asia.

24. Which of the following most logically

completes the argument?

Virtually all respondents to a recent voter

survey reported allegiance to one of the two

major political parties. But over a third of the

voters from each party reported being so

disenchanted with the governing philosophies

of both parties that they might join a third

major party if one were formed. Even if this

poll reflects general voter sentiment, however,

there is no chance that a new party could

attract a third of all voters, since----.

(A) the current level of disenchantment with the

governing philosophies of the two major

parties is unprecedented

(B) the disenchanted members of the two major

parties are attracted to very different

governing philosophies

of voters disenchanted with both parties, saving

that the proportion was more than 50 percent

(D) nearly half of all respondents reported that

they would be more likely to cease voting

altogether than to switch their party affiliation

(E) any new party would be likely to inspire

citizens who have not voted before to join

and to become regular voters

25. When amphibians first appeared on Earth millions

of years ago, the amount of ultraviolet radiation

penetrating Earth’s atmosphere was much greater

than it is today. Therefore, current dramatic

decreases in amphibian populations cannot be the

result of recent increases in ultraviolet radiation

penetrating Earth’s atmosphere.

Which of the following is an assumption on which

the argument depends?

(A) The eggs of modern amphibians are not

significantly more vulnerable to ultraviolet

radiation than the eggs of the first

amphibians were.

(B) Modern amphibians are not as likely as the

first amphibians were to live in habitats that

shield them from ultraviolet radiation.

able to adapt to changing levels of radiation

as readily as populations of early amphibians

were.

(D) The skin of amphibians is generally more

sensitive to ultraviolet radiation than the

skin of other animals is.

(E) The skin of amphibians is less sensitive to

ultraviolet radiation than to other types of

radiation.

SECTION 3

Time—30 minutes

30 Questions

The rent for each room at Hotel X was $ 120 before it was increased 10 percent.

1. The rent for each room $132

at Hotel X immediately

after the increase

Train X traveled away from station A, and train Y traveled toward station A. The trains traveled toward each other on parallel tracks and passed each other at 10:30 A.M.

3. The number of min- The number of min-

utes before 10:30 A.M. utes after 10:30 A.M.

that train X traveled that train Y traveled

after leaving station A before arriving at

station A

4. The length of the The length of the

hypotenuse of a right hypotenuse of a right

triangle with legs of triangle with legs of

lengths 3 and 4 lengths 2 and 5

The average (arithmetic mean )of the numbers

1, 2, 3, 4, and n is equal to 2.

5. n 2

6. x y

Points P, Q, and R have rectangular coordinates

(0,8), (4, 0), and (0, -3) , respectively.

8. The perimeter of 25

△PQR

The result of multiplying z by

9. z 1

xyz < 0

yz > 0

10. x y

____________________________________

12. The perimeter of the XZ YZ

shaded region

_____________________________________

13. 3-5 0

_____________________________________

The sum of x and y is less than the product of x

and y.


	#FormatImgID_9#

14. x 0

16. If the range of the six measurements 140,

125, 180, 110, 165, and x is 80, which of the

following could be the value of x?

(A) 60

(B) 85

(D) 220

(E) 245

k	ak	pk
1	100	0.10
2	200	0.25
3	300	0.20
4	400	0.25
5	500	0.20

17. If in an experiment the probabilities of

obtaining the values a1, a2, a3, a4, and a5 are

p1, p2, p3, p4, and p5, respectively, then the

expected value is defined as

a1p1 a2p2 a3p3 a4p4 a5p5. For the values

and their corresponding probabilities in the

table above, what is the expected value?

(A) 350

(B) 320

(D) 270

(E) 250

18. If m is an integer, for what value of m is

3m < 100 < 3m 1?

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) 3

(E) 4

19. A certain club is collecting money for a

charity. A local company has agreed to

contribute $ 1 to the charity for every $3

collected by the club. How much money must

the club collect in order for the total amount

for the charity, including the company

contribution, to equal $24,000?

(A) $18,000

(B) $16,000

(D) $12,000

(E) $10,000

20. A corner of a square tile is cut off, leaving

the piece shown above. What is the area of

this piece?

(A) 90 sq in

(B) 85 sq in

(D) 75 sq in

(E) 70 sq in

Questions 21-25 refer to the following

distribution.

TEST SCORES FOR A CLASS OF

8 JUNIORS AND 12 SENIORS

21. If 5 seniors have scores of 82 or above, how

many juniors have scores below 82?

(A) 7

(B) 6

(D) 4

(E) 3

22. If 76 is the lowest passing score, what percent

of the class did not get a passing score?

(A) 8%

(B) 10%

(D) 20%

(E) 25%

23. The median score for the class is

(A) 76

(B) 77

(D) 79

(E) 80

24. If 5 points were added to each score, which of

the following would NOT be affected?

(A) The highest score

(B) The mean for all scores

(D) The mode for the juniors’ scores

(E) The standard deviation for all scores

25. If the mean score for the juniors were known,

which of the following could be calculated

from the information given?

Ⅰ.The range of the scores for the seniors

Ⅱ.The median score for the juniors

Ⅲ.The mean score for the seniors

(A) None

(B) Ⅰ only

(D) Ⅰ and Ⅱ

(E) Ⅱ and Ⅲ

26. A membership list of 620 people shows that

31 of them have first and last names that

begin with the same letter. If a person is

selected at random from the list, what is the

probability that the person’s first and last

names do not begin with the same letter?

(A) 0.05

(B) 0.25

(D) 0.75 (E) 0.95

27. If p and r are prime numbers, which of the

following must also be prime?

(A) pr

(B) p r

(D) p2 r2

(E) None of the above

28. For what ordered pair (x, y) on the graph of


	#FormatImgID_12#

y- coordinate?

(A) (-2, -2)

(D) (2 , 1)

(E) (2, 2)

29. David and Michael charged Mr. Jimenez $3,000 to remodel his basement. To complete the project, David worked 4 days alone, Michael worked 1 day alone, and they worked 10 days together. If they each received the same amount of money for each day that they worked, how much of the $3,000 did David receive?

(A) $1,800

(B) $1,750

(D) $1,575

(E) $1,200

SECTION 4

Time – 30 minutes

38 Questions

1. Punishment for violating moral rules is much

more common than reward for following them;

thus, ----- the rules goes almost ---- in society.

(A) association with .. undefended

(B) adherence to .. unnoticed

(D) opposition to .. unchecked

(E) ignorance of .. unresolved

2. Compassion is a great respecter of justice: we

pity those who suffer ----.

(A) shamelessly

(B) unwittingly

(D) intensively

(E) undeservedly

3. No work illustrated his disdain for a systematic

approach to research better than his

dissertation, which was rejected primarily

because his bibliography constituted, at best,

----- survey of the major texts in his field.

(A) an unimaginative

(B) an orthodox

(D) a comprehensive

(E) a haphazard

4. In contrast to the----- with which the

acquisition of language by young children was

once regarded, the process by which such

learning occurs has now become the object

of ----- .

(A) intensity .. fascination

(B) incuriosity .. scrutiny

(D) reverence .. admiration

(E) impatience .. training

5. The senator’s remark that she is ambivalent

about running for a second term is -----given

the extremely ----- fund-raising activities of

her campaign committee.

(A) disingenuous .. reluctant

(B) futile .. clandestine

(D) persuasive .. apathetic

(E) straightforward .. energetic

6. Until quite recently research on diabetes had, as

a kind of holding action, attempted to refine

the -----of the disease, primarily because no

preventive strategy seemed at all likely to

be ----- .

(A) definition .. necessary

(B) anticipation .. acceptable

(D) treatment .. practicable

(E) symptoms .. feasible

7. Most plant species exhibit ----- in their

geographical distribution: often, a given species

is found over a large geographical area, but

individual populations within that range are

widely ----- .

(A) discontinuity .. separated

(B) density .. dispersed

(D) uniformity .. scattered

(E) concentration .. adaptable

Directions: In each of the following questions, a

related pair of words or phrases is followed by five lettered pairs of words or phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

8. FATIGUE: REST::

(A) gravity: weight

(B) friction: heat

(D) dizziness: vertigo

(E) radiation: light

9. RECYCLE: DISPOSAL::

(A) recommend: insistence

(B) reciprocate: treatment

(D) attach: conquest

(E) offer: sale

10. DICTIONARY: ALPHABETICAL::

(A) map: contoured

(B) diary: anecdotal

(D) narrative: prosaic

(E) annals: chronological

11. ATTENUATE: THICKNESS::

(A) separate: substance

(B) ventilate: circulation

(D) relocate: site

(E) debilitate: strength

12. SATIRE: RIDICULE::

(A) oration: enmity

(B) lullaby: dream

(D) elegy: sorrow

(E) sonnet: remembrance

13. STOIC: PERTURB::

(A) perplexed: enlighten

(B) nondescript: neglect

(D) avaricious: satisfy

(E) daunting: bewilder

14. EXCULPATORY: ABSOLVE::

(A) motivational: stir

(B) conventional: resist

(D) pedantic: learn

(E) ponderous: choose

15. MODERATE: INTENSITY::

(A) extenuate: seriousness

(B) separate: distance

(D) commemorate: memorial

(E) disparage: animosity

16. JOLT: MOVE::

(A) possess: acquire

(B) arrive: remain

(D) spiral: turn

(E) rattle: hear

The origin of the theory that major geologic events

may occur at regular intervals can be traced back not

to a study of volcanism or plate tectonics but to an

investigation of marine extinctions. In the early 1980’s,

(5) scientists began to look closely at the question of how

these extinctions occur. Two paleontologists, Raup

and Sepkoski, compiled amaster list of marine species

that died out duringthe past 268 million years and

noted that there were brief periods during which

(10) many species disappeared at once. These mass extinc-

tions occurred at surprisingly regular intervals.

Later studies revealed that extinctions of terrestrial reptiles and mammals also occurred periodically.

These findings, combined with the research of Raup

(15) and Sepkoski, led scientists to hypothesize the

existence of some kind of cyclically recurring force

powerful enough to affect living things profoundly.

Speculation that so powerful a force might affect

gelogic events as well led geologists to search for

(20) evidence of periodicity in episodes of volcanism,

seafloor spreading, and plate movement.

17. According to the passage, Raup and Sepkoski’s

research was concerned with

(A) learning more about the habitats of marine

species

(B) studying plate tectonics and the occurrence

of volcanism over the past 268 million years

over the past 268 million years

(D) finding out whether a rhythmically recurring

geologic force exists

(E) confirming previous evidence suggesting

that extinction of terrestrial species occurred

regularly

18. The author of the passage would most likely

describe the findings of Roup and Sepkoski as

(A) plausible, because the findings supported

the theories of previous researchers

(B) significant, because the findings were an

impetus for subsequent research

the theories of previous researchers

(D) questionable, because the authors were not

working in their field of expertise

(E) definitive, because the findings confirmed

the existence of a rhythmically recurring

force

19. The author of the passage is primarily

concerned with

(A) determining the dates of various geologic　events

(B) defending the conclusions reached by　Raup and Sepkoski

(D) proving that mass extinctions of marine animals occur periodcally

(E) explaining how a theory concerning　geologic events was formulated

20. The passage suggests which of the following　about the “force” mentioned in lines 16 and 18 ?

(A) It is responsible for most of the major

geologic events that have occurred.

(B) It is responsible for most of the marine

extinctions that have occurred.

predicted by scientists.

(D) Its existence was not seriously considered

by scientists before Raup and Sepkoski did

their research.

(E) Its existence was confirmed by the research

of Raup and Sepkoski.

A recent history of the Chicago meat-packing　industry and its workers examines how the industry

grew from its appearance in the 1830’s through the early 1890’s. Meat-packers, the author argues, had

(5) good wages, working conditions, and prospects for　advancement within the packinghouses, and did not

cooperate with labor agitators since labor relations　were so harmonious. Because the history maintains

that conditions were above standard for the era, the(10) frequency of labor disputes, especially in the mid-　1880’s, is not accounted for. The work ignores the　fact that the 1880’s were crucial years in American　labor history, and that the packinghouse workers’　efforts were part of the national movement for labor　(15) reform.

In fact, other historical sources for the late nine-　teenth century record deteriorating housing and high　disease and infant mortality rates in the industrial　community, due to low wages and unhealthy working(20) conditions. Additional data from the University of　Chicago suggest that the packinghouses were dangerous places to work. The government investigation　commissioned by President Theodore Roosevelt　which eventually led to the adoption of the 1906(25) Meat Inspection Act found the packinghouses　unsanitary, while social workers observed that most　of the workers were poorly paid and overworked.

The history may be too optimistic because most of　its data date from the 1880’s at the latest, and the infor-(30) mation provided from that decade is insufficiently　analyzed. Conditions actually declined in the 1880’s,　and continued to decline after the 1880’s, due to a　reorganization of the packing process and a massive　influx of unskilled workers. The deterioration in　(35) worker status, partly a result of the new availability of　unskilled and hence cheap labor, is not discussed.

Though a detailed account of work in the packing　houses is attempted, the author fails to distinguish　between the wages and conditions for skilled workers　(40) and for those unskilled laborers who comprised the　majority of the industry’s workers from the 1880’s　on. While conditions for the former were arguably　tolerable due to the strategic importance of skilled　workers in the complicated slaughtering, cutting, and　(45) packing process (though worker complaints about the　rate and conditions of work were frequent), pay andconditions for the latter were wretched.

The author’s misinterpretation of the origins of the　feelings the meat-packers had for their industrial　(50) neighborhood may account for the history’s faulty　generalizations. The pride and contentment the author　remarks upon were, arguably, less the products of the　industrial world of the packers ---- the giant yards and the intricate plants ---- than of the unity and vibrance　(55)of the ethnic cultures that formed a viable community　on Chicago’s South Side. Indeed, the strength of this　community succeeded in generating a social movement　that effectively confronted the problems of the industry　that provided its livelihood.

21. The passage is primarily concerned with discussing

(A) how historians ought to explain the origins

of the conditions in the Chicago meat-

packing industry

(B) why it is difficult to determine the actual

nature of the conditions in the Chicago

meat-packing industry

in the Chicago meat-packing industry is

inaccurate

(D) what ought to be included in any account

of the Chicago meat-packers’ role in the

national labor movement

(E) what data are most relevant for an accurate

account of the relations between Chicago

meat-packers and local labor agitators

22. The author of the passage mentions all of the

following as describing negative conditions in

the meat-packing industry EXCEPT

(A) data from the University of Chicago

(B) a recent history of the meat-packing

industry

(D) historical sources for the late nineteenth

century

(E) government records

23. The author of the passage mentions the “social

movement” (line 57) generated by Chicago’s

South Side community primarily in order to

(A) inform the reader of events that occurred in

the meat-packing industry after the period

of time covered by the history

(B) suggest the history’s limitations by

pointing out a situation that the history

failed to explain adequately

suggesting that there were positive

developments in the meat-packing industry

due to worker unity

(D) introduce a new issue designed to elaborate

on the good relationship between the meat-

packers and Chicago’s ethnic communities

(E) suggest that the history should have

focused more on the general issue of the

relationship between labor movements and

healthy industrial communities

24. According to the passage, the working

conditions of skilled workers in the meat-

packing industry during the 1880’s were

influenced by

(A) the workers’ determined complaints about

the rate and conditions of their work

(B) the efforts of social workers to improve

sanitation in the packinghouses

industry’s complex tasks

(D) improvements in the industry’s packing

process that occurred in the 1880’s

(E) opportunities for job advancement due to

the filling of less desira ble positions by

increasing numbers of unskilled workers

25. The author of the passage uses the second

paragraph to

(A) summarize the main point of the history

discussed in the passage

(B) explain why the history discussed in the

passage has been disparaged by critics

undermine the premises of the history

discussed in the passage

(D) introduce a hypothesis that will be discussed in

detail later in the passage

(E) present evidence that is intended to refute the

argument of the history discussed in the passage

26. The tone of the author of the passage in discussing

the meat-packer community on Chicago’s South Side

can best be described as one of

(A) appreciation of the community’s ability to

cope with difficult conditions

(B) admiration for the community’s refusal to

cooperate with labor agitators

community faced

(D) annoyance at the community’s inability to

abolish discrimination in the meat-packing

industry

(E) concern that the meat-packers’ feelings for

their community have not been documented

27. The information in the passage suggests that

the author of the history discussed in the

passage made which of the following errors?

(A) Failing to recognize the effect of the

diversity of the South Side community on

the meat-packers’ efforts to reform the

industry

(B) Attributing good working conditions in the

meat-packing industry to the efforts of labor

agitators

availability of unskilled labor as an influence

on conditions in the meat packing industry

(D) Interpreting the meat-packers’ feelings for

their community as appreciation of their

industry

(E) Failing to observe the pride and contentment

felt by the meat-packers

28. CELEBRITY:

(A) eccentricity

(B) informality

(D) aloofness

(E) nonchalance

29. CHRONIC:

(A) imminent

(B) asynchronous

(D) sporadic

(E) spontaneous

30. ACCUMULATION:

(A) severance

(B) dissipation

(D) absolution

(E) remuneration

　31. CALCIFICATION:

(A) forgetfulness

(B) abundance

(D) clairvoyance

(E) flexibility

32. MIGRATORY:

(A) speculative

(B) transitory

(D) kinetic

(E) convergent

33. CIVILITY:

(A) impassivity

(B) rudeness

(D) dubiety

(E) indolence

34. VARIANCE:

(A) contingency

(B) congruity

(D) usefulness

(E) distinctness

35. GENIAL:

(A) dyspeptic

(B) ceremoni

2014年GRE考试精选练习题(第四套)

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